"Earning Back" FML Time

KP68

Employee has now exhausted all intermittent FML time and is not eligible for any more until May 2004 (12 months from the first day taken).
My question is does the employee get all 12 weeks back immediately after 12 months, or is it 'earned' back according to how it was used? I thought I heard something about this in a seminar a couple years ago, but it has not come up until now.

Any help on this would be appreciated.
Thanks.

WT

I believe that will depend on how your leave year is structured. For instance, if you use a calendar year, more leave would be available as of Jan 1 of the next year.

If you use a "rolling year", then at each request, you would look back 12 months and see how much leave the person had used. This is a way they could get some partial credit. If they used 11 weeks of time in the past 12 months, then they could use another week.

If you have not designated a leave year, you should do so to avoid confusion.

POPEYE

>Employee has now exhausted all intermittent FML
>time and is not eligible for any more until May
>2004 (12 months from the first day taken).
>My question is does the employee get all 12
>weeks back immediately after 12 months, or is it
>'earned' back according to how it was used? I
>thought I heard something about this in a
>seminar a couple years ago, but it has not come
>up until now.
>
>Any help on this would be appreciated.
>Thanks.


I'm sure you meant to key May of 2005 and it sounds like you are using a "rolling" 12 month option to calculate leave. If that is the case, then if the EE took 8 hrs. leave on May 1 of '04, then May 1 of '05 they would have 8 hours of entitlement available. Then they used 8 more hours on May 12, '04, then again they would have 8 hours available on May 12, '05 and so on......