FMLA Discrimination Charge
dkay
3 Posts
I have an employee who has been with my department for almost 2 years. Since the time of their employment w/ my company, there have been constant issues with perfomance, relationships with peers, and absences due to illnesses on the employee's part and for the employee's children. This employee requested and was awarded FMLA benefits due to a chronic illness regarding their child. The leave was intermittent and I didn't know from day to day whether or not this person would be absent. My company handles massive volumes of work and a desk can not go unattended for more than a week without major issues arising. After a couple of weeks of constant absence, the workload was redistributed to other staff members to ensure a certain level of flow. During this time, perfomance issues that were believed to have been corrected were still an issue. This employee had been retrained numerous times and had assured me that the "light had come on" and they understood where they were going. This is where the discrination allegation comes into play. There was a day where the employee was there for the entire day but it just so happened that it was a fellow employee/friend's last day on the job. Whenever I leave my office I have to walk past this person's desk, I must have walked past at least 15 times. Each time the following happened: this person wasn't at their desk, they were at the friends desk chatting, on a smoke break, or making personal calls on their cell phone for the friend that was having financial issues. I happened by the desk again, frustrated with the fact that no work was getting done and they were still socializing, and asked if this person if they "needed weekend access to get caught up on anything" since they hadn't gotten much done today I made the assumption that would be the case. I was told point blank that this person didn't need to make up any time since they were gone for the child's illness and FMLA covered this absence. I stated that I just wanted to make sure the work was getting done and left (all of this was before the redistribution of workload). A complaint was made that I "embarrassed" the employee in front of their peers and it was taken to HR.
The employee didn't return for weeks, daily calling in stating that they wouldn't be in. After I had been made aware that the performance issues still existed, I made attempts to document what the issues were. The employee came in after hours, with no supervision, and processed information that others in the department were handling. They didn't inform me or anyone else that they would be coming in to work. I called them and let them know that they needed to talk to me and let me know when they would be in the building and that I had issues with performance and they were to talk to me before any processing took place.
Long story short, believe it's even more involved than this, I'm being discriminatory because this employee in on FMLA and this charge has been taken to our HR department.
My question is, if I had made prior attempts to correct performance issues and was led to believe that everything was understood only to find out that the same issues continued, addressing these issues is discriminatory because this person is covered by FMLA?
The employee didn't return for weeks, daily calling in stating that they wouldn't be in. After I had been made aware that the performance issues still existed, I made attempts to document what the issues were. The employee came in after hours, with no supervision, and processed information that others in the department were handling. They didn't inform me or anyone else that they would be coming in to work. I called them and let them know that they needed to talk to me and let me know when they would be in the building and that I had issues with performance and they were to talk to me before any processing took place.
Long story short, believe it's even more involved than this, I'm being discriminatory because this employee in on FMLA and this charge has been taken to our HR department.
My question is, if I had made prior attempts to correct performance issues and was led to believe that everything was understood only to find out that the same issues continued, addressing these issues is discriminatory because this person is covered by FMLA?
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