excessive absenteeism

I was wondering what other companies consider excessive abesteeism. We want to create a general policy across departments (currently every department has their own...its a nightmare!). Any info is appreciated.

Thanks
Carrie
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Comments

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  • It really depends on the department....not what you wanted to hear, I know. But some departments can part with ee's for a longer period of time before it becomes "critical".

    Generally though, when you're out more than you're at work, it's excessive. Most employers seem to require a doctor's note if you're out more than 3 consecutive days for illness.
  • Our policy, which applies to hourly employees in a manufacturing environment only, is anything exceeding two 'incidents' in a month is excessive and warrants step in the progressive discipline process. An incident is any one of these: late, leave early, absence for anything other than FMLA/military/jury duty, refused overtime, no call-no show.
  • Ditto to Don's except: On the 4th incident in a rolling 6 months comes a verbal, 5 = written,
    6 = 3 day suspension and 7 termination.
  • [font size="1" color="#FF0000"]LAST EDITED ON 06-17-04 AT 09:10PM (CST)[/font][br][br]Excessive absenteeism involves exceeding the number of paid time off days allocated by the company for various types of absences or exceeding the PTO allocation.

    However, of course that is only one indicator and doesn't address the issue of someone who may have a catastrophic illness that could take several months to resolve.

    So in addition at looking at the allocation v. actual days off, you need to put it in context -- the length of service of the employee and the attendance/absence history of the emplpyee; the cumulative detrimental impact, if any, of the absences on the operations of the employer, the delivery of services or product, the disruption and impairment of work, any poor service to the client or customer, increased costs,etc. That doesn't mean that each day of absence something negative must be happening but there should be sufficient documented instances to be representative of the problems the employee's absences are causing on the job.

    For what it's worth, a general definition for excessive absences I've used is "an unreasonable number of absences over a significant period of time" when taking the various factors into account (length of service, detrimental impact, etc.).

    Hopefully, the superivsor or manager prior to the issue coming to a head with a termiantion, informed the employee that there was an absence problem occuring that needed to be corrected so that the employee would not wind up being terminated.

    I've backed out of this FMLA and ADA considerations as well as other legally protected absences (e.g., jury duty).




  • For what it's worth, a general definition for excessive absences I've used is "an unreasonable number of absences over a significant period of time" when taking the various factors into account (length of service, detrimental impact, etc.).


    C'mon Hatchet! This analysis is waaaay to anal. And, what's excessive and what's unreasonable and what's significant and what's etc.?
  • Talk about me beinng "anal."

    So, you would consider a 20-year emplyee with docmented excellent attendance record to be excessively absent as soon as he hits 3 absences in a month merely on the fact that he was abent 3 times ina 30day period, ignoring all the previous 20 years and the lack of any impact on the ob?
  • Yes, absolutely. Consistency in policy application is a must. Enforcement of attendance policies, in my experience and opinion, is a stand-alone consideration, in a vacuum, if you will. Once you start filtering it through the seive of past performance reviews, attitude, production reports, error-free copy, etc, you've bastardized your whole attendance policy and it is rendered totally ineffective and indefensible. Been in way too many hearings and courtrooms to go there.

    If you're stopped going 85 down the interstate the cop doesn't give a hoot if it's your first ticket.
  • We have a no fault absenteeism policy. Unless the employee makes arrangements at least 24 hours in advance of the absence or the absence falls under a protected leave category such as FMLA, we track all absences. Our system gives 1/2 point to tardies (up to 2 hours late for work) and 1 point to absences (works less than 5 hours of shift). A multiple day absence for the same reason counts as one point. We track these points over a rolling 12 month calendar. When the employee reaches 8 points in a 12 month period, they are terminated for excessive absenteeism.

    Also, if an employee fails to show up for a mandatory meeting and has not made arrangements in advance not to be there, they are charged with a tardy.

    I hope this helps.
  • Given your scenario above, if a 20 day or 20 year employee violated our attendance policy, the discipline would be the same for both. How can you consistently administer your policy and discipline and not treat everyone the same?
  • 20 years or 20 days does not matter in this context. An employee can go bad performance wise anytime. Two days ago I recommended the termination of our Maintenance Supervisor after 18 years on the job for stealing company property worth several hundred dollars. Everyone in that guy's chain of command, from the CEO on down, was broken up by the revelation because he was so well liked and had been there so long. The battle I had to fight was whether or not to allow him to resign, rather than be fired for cause. I won that fight because stealing is stealing, and any other action on our part would weaken our existing policy and any future defense against charges of discrimination that could arise as a result of the termination. We've argued about this in other threads, but sometimes the idea of mitigating circumstances just doesn't apply.
  • What you treat alike are similarly-situated emplyees.

    If your attendance/absence policy can't distinguish between an emplyee who has 20 years of service with an excellent attendance record and a one-year emplyee who has many absences, then I pity your workforce. There is no advantage to a long-term, good working employee in your company over a short problem employee because both are going to be treated exactly the same in all situations.

    I think most HR professionals would take into account relelvant factors, such as of length of service, actual history, record with the company (attendance) emplyee's value to the company, the needs of the comapny, and the impact absences are having on the job.

    Not every HR professional would make the same decision in the same situations -- reasonable people do differ -- but at least they would look at the individual cases and decide how to proceed using a consistency between SIMILARLY-SITUATED employees, not a blanket, "one-size fits all" approach, without regard to relevant factors.
  • [font size="1" color="#FF0000"]LAST EDITED ON 06-18-04 AT 11:52AM (CST)[/font][br][br]Manufacturing environment with 72 ee's. We track unavailability. The number of hours each ee is scheduled to work and the number of unexcused hours the ee was scheduled to work and missed. In the tracking of this we look at a couple of things for excessiveness. We look at the month-to-date unavailability and the year-to-date unavailability. Once both of those numbers reach 2.5% or greater we consider this excessive and issue progressive discipline. Seniority has nothing to do with our tracking of unavailability. We do take things into account that would cause excessive absences and do this on an individual basis, and, consistent with past practice. Again seniority is not a factor in our attendance policy, attendance is the relevant issue.
  • I must admit to being anal about consistent application of policy. A one size fits all approach. However, I find Hatchetman's reasoning compelling.

    Just thinking through it a bit, I am wondering if the application of Hatchetman's approach is limited to some fairly large employers. With our 65 EEs, it would be difficult to come up with meaningful groups of similarly-situated EEs. We have just 4 different departments, each has it's own attendance criteria based not only on the department's function, but on program functions within the departments. Then years of service differentials are peppered throughout. Add in exempt and non-exempt differentials and remoted office eccentricites and you start getting a complex equation.

    Trying define the similarly situated EEs, distinguishing those differences within each program and department and then trying to track them and their different treatments would be quite difficult. I would think large employers would have an exponentially more difficult task. I think I am talking myself into sticking with the consistent application. Justifying different treatments seems like a quagmire.

    Just some thoughts.
  • Hatchetman: Oddly when you speak of what 'Most' HR professionals would do, you discount what those on the Forum have told you they do. How do you support that notion?

    I would not want the task of supporting your idea in a union setting, an EEOC examination or a UI hearing. But, as is often said here, I support your right to have your opinion.
  • The idea that a short term employee and a 20 year employee should be treated alike is ludicrous. A 20 year employee who is suddenly missing time warrants extra attention, extra counseling, whatever. The 20 years is worth something and to do otherwise is kind of like - you know what, Jack, I really don't care that you have been great for 20 years and I don't care that you have suddenly had a run of bad luck after all these years, and I'm really not interested in hearing about it. That fact of the matter is that your worth to us is what you do today and you've missed three times in "X" amount of time so heave ho, out the door you go". It is what Hatchetman says, treating equally under similar circumstances. The short termer and the 20 year employee are two different things.
  • Here's a scenario you have a 2 yr ee and a 20 yr ee both have had good attendance throughout their tenure with your company then suddenly both are coming in late 1 or 2 times a week, both are absent 1 day a month for 6 mths.
    You discipline/term the 2 yr ee but not the 20 yr ee. I see an EEOC hearing in your future.

    Length of service is important but your policies are there for ALL your ee's not just the lower senority ee's.

    JMO,
    Lisa
  • No, the hearing will be about why the 20 year employee was not given some sort of credit for 20 years of service and why was it necessary, under those circumstances, to terminate the individual.
  • Why do you think there would be an EEOC investigation in the offing?

    The mere fact that the employer treated each emplyee indvidually based upon specific facts that aren't based on race, relgion, national origina, sex, etc., doesn't give the basis for an EEOC investigation.

    Even if one employee, the 2-year employee, was black and the other one, the 20 year employee, was white, for example, doesn't mean that the indivdual evaluation is based upon an illegal discirminatory act. While EEOC would probably look into it, given the apparent difference in races, if the employer proffers, with evidence (e.g., a record where such decisions were also favorable to blacks who had many years of service) a non-discriminatory basis for the decision, I'm sure EEOC would find no illegal discrimination occurring.

    In my involvement over many years in union setting, reading court cases and arbitrator's decisions involving terminations and decisions on attendance/absences, I constantly have come across the factors I mentioned above as viable considerations for an employer.


  • The poll is coming along well. Two men from California, both beginning to bristle, against the world.
  • Our policy is:

    Unexcused or unauthorized absence’s beyond six days per year will be considered excessive and can be grounds for disciplinary action, dismissal or status changed to part time status with no benefits. Additionally, absence beyond four days in a six month period may be noted in the employees personnel file and can also be grounds for disciplinary action, dismissal or a change in employment status.

    We are a non-union shop. I find the argument for treating similarly situated employees compelling, but not practical. Our folks know the policy, have signed an acknowledgement & a long-term employee knows better than to not seek prior approval or at least give a heads up to either HR or their supervisor about the circumstances (not the details) of their absences. The direction the company takes in regards to deciding the necessary corrective action/termination all depends on the information the ee provides as an explanation for their absences - regardless of time on the job.
  • Well, two men from California is all you need.
  • Yes, maybe it is probably a California thing but I suspect not, and I shaved this morning so am not bristling. There is probably a connection with "at will" to be found here. We in California are used to a pro-employee definition of "at will" so have become used to the idea of due process, fairness and yes, consistency - that equal treatment means equal treatment for those in similar circumstances. Those in states where "at will" is the end all for everthing on the other hand -------
  • Well written and AMEN!!!!!!! If the ER values these "long-term" EEs then there should be benefits, vacation, personal time, LOA...to keep them from getting into attendance problems. Absent that, a policy is a policy for all.
  • All I am trying to say in my scenario is WHY treat ee's different. We are suppose to be non bias and having both ees in same situation you are treating one ee differently than you are treating another ee.

    Does not go into race, age, sex that is irrelevant to this discussion and only adds more
    factors. What is being discussed is your companies attendance policy and how you as an individual company wishes to enforce that policy.

    I feel that while the company is grateful for the 20 yrs of service, the ee is also taking advantage of the company by not expecting to be disciplined for something that a lower senority ee would be receiving. You are setting yourself up for double standards and policies for the under 10 yr ee and the over 10 yr ee.




    JMO,
    Lisa x:D
  • MWild-
    Welcome back! Its been awhile.

    Lisa
  • There is a legitimate business reaosn why many emplyers do treat emplyees with long term good emplyment recor differnetly than shortermrers.

    The employer sees a vluae in loyalty and the emplyee has value to the emplyer. Knowledged of the comapny, kthe time and effort the company has put into the emplyee over the years (e.g., traiing), the xpertiese of the emplyee in the comapny's service,s proucts, operations, etc.

    The comapny isn't going to throw away that resoruce so quickly. So, it will address that kind of emplyee, who has a good record, differently than short-termer.

    I am not saying that a long term emplyee who has a good attendance record and begins to devleop an absence problme does't need to be talked to at some point. But the employer may want to take longer to consider that the emplyee is an attendnace problme than it would in considering a short-termer to be an attendance problem. After all, the history of the emplyee is a very good indicator, absent any other information, of how the employee will act over the long term. Since the employer has no information about a short termer to consider, it would be morel likely then to consider frequent absences to be indicative of the long term employment and therefore would take steps to address sooner than the employee who has long term service with a good attendnace record up to that point.

    So, in practicality, an automatic "tripwire" for ALL circumstances, doesn't make sense.
  • Hatchetman: Now that you've stated that opinion 3 times, tell us where you're magic line lies. A short timer...Would that be the guy with 16 months or four and a half years. As compared to whom? The 20 year guy or the eleven year guy. Let's say you have all four of those employees racking up the points at the same rate and teetering on dismissal at my company.Which one(s)get a pass? Only the 20 year guy because of his perceived loyalty? Or maybe also the eleven year guy because he's had good reviews? And the 4 and a half year guy has good attendance, good reviews and is on a fast track to leadership. Or do you suspend them all for two weeks while you run your analysis?

    I don't know what type of arbitrations or EEOC hearings you've been in, but I can tell you for sure none I've been in would allow an employer to have such a wishy-washy, subjective policy as you are proposing to the members of the Forum. But, please, using the four employees I exampled above, all with the same attendance issues, which ones get what..........and why? And to further complicate things with reality, remember that attendance issues continue to occur, as they always do, throughout each day and week while you decide and you have several others wanting to know what your policy is going to be so they can plan their behavior appropriately.
  • No,Hatchetman - we must be wrong. A policy is a policy is a policy. No discernment necessary. Whew! it is going to be much easier now.
  • Usually I try to stay out of these arguments but what the hell, it's Friday. I recognize the value of Don's position regarding potential litigation risk by treating people different. But frankly, there is a risk of litigation every time we walk in the door.

    I think we as HR professionals have an obligation to use our knowledge and experience to make decisions. If it were a simple matter of flipping to page 1120 of the employee handbook or policy and reading what it says then there is no need for an HR professional as anyone who can read can make the call.

    I believe that to make a proper and decent and defendable decision on disciplinary matters, one has to review ALL the facts associated with the situation including length of prior service and performance.

    In the case of a 20 year good performer vs a 2 year poor performer, I have no problem whatsoever in giving a verbal to the 20 year and written to the 2 year.

    If there is a problem, it's when people take this philosophy too far and fire the 2 year employee and no one even speaks with the 20 year person.
  • I don't have a "bright line" for you. I don't think anyone has, althoug I've seen aribtation cases have have start to see a difference between 10 year emplyees and short termers. I've seen a couple over the years, that have looked at 5 years. But as Jake (in post No. 29) puts it, what is important is for HR to use its experience, judgement, knowledge, prooer anlaysis, goes inot all of this to determine what the most approrpiate action should be in any particular case, using relevant factors.

    The fact that I don't have a bright line doesn't invalidate what I am and others are suggesting. Being arbitrary by setting attendance standards that aren't based on anything except an artificial number, is just as bad as being capricious. I'm not proposing either.

    I am suggesting considered deliberations by those who need to make them with a view of the overall circumstances and determinations on relevantm, acceptable factors, such as work history and length of service.
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