FMLA Question - advice needed quickly
Meg
54 Posts
I know this is an FMLA question, but am hoping that this may getter a faster response in this area.
I got a call from an HR manager at one of our sites and am not quite sure about the answer to give her. Apparently there was an employee who went out to have a baby in November. She was not yet eligible for FMLA. However, this manager allowed her to take “personal” time. I don’t know if she was having complications or not, but her doctor is now releasing her from his care. This employee became eligible for FMLA while she was out on leave.
My question is if she is now allowed 12 weeks from the date she became eligible? Can we count the time she was out on “personal” leave as time going against her FMLA? My thought is yes – this woman should not be allowed to take 4 months total – I feel it should be a total of 12 weeks of leave. My manager was sympathetic and did not want to loose this employee and allowed her to take the leave before she was entitled.
I also know that whatever happens in this situation will set a precedent for this location. While I don’t think it is a good idea to allow employees to take leave before they are eligible, I can understand that this woman was very close to becoming eligible – I just don’t want this manager and her location to be taken advantage of.
Are there any legal implications that would require us to give this woman more than 12 weeks of any type of leave?
Answers would be greatly appreciated, as I need to get back to my manger and the employee.
I got a call from an HR manager at one of our sites and am not quite sure about the answer to give her. Apparently there was an employee who went out to have a baby in November. She was not yet eligible for FMLA. However, this manager allowed her to take “personal” time. I don’t know if she was having complications or not, but her doctor is now releasing her from his care. This employee became eligible for FMLA while she was out on leave.
My question is if she is now allowed 12 weeks from the date she became eligible? Can we count the time she was out on “personal” leave as time going against her FMLA? My thought is yes – this woman should not be allowed to take 4 months total – I feel it should be a total of 12 weeks of leave. My manager was sympathetic and did not want to loose this employee and allowed her to take the leave before she was entitled.
I also know that whatever happens in this situation will set a precedent for this location. While I don’t think it is a good idea to allow employees to take leave before they are eligible, I can understand that this woman was very close to becoming eligible – I just don’t want this manager and her location to be taken advantage of.
Are there any legal implications that would require us to give this woman more than 12 weeks of any type of leave?
Answers would be greatly appreciated, as I need to get back to my manger and the employee.
Comments
My reason for saying this is that you don't know if the personal leave qualified as FMLA and also that my understanding is that you can't retroactively designate leave as FMLA after the fact. It doesn't sound like anyone told her at the time that her personal leave would be FMLA.
Start the leave when she has qualified for it and when you have indicated to her that has started.
Again, not my specialty so I defer to wiser minds.
Paul